Question #60

If baptism is essential, then must erring Christians be rebaptized? Why was Jesus baptized?

First Question: If Baptism is a requirement for salvation, and you say that a person can lose their salvation, then why don’t they have to be baptized over and over when they sin? It would seem that if you actually lose your salvation then you would need to be baptized again.

Second Question: Why was Jesus baptized? Jesus was perfect, right? So we know he didn’t have to do this for salvation. Please explain.

The Answer:

Being born again is similar to physical birth – a person cannot enter again into the womb and be born a second time. John 3:1-5. God’s command for one who has erred is to repent and confess his sins. For example, review the situation of Simon the Sorcerer in Acts 8. In verse 13 Simon believed and was baptized. However, in verses 18-19, when Simon saw that through the laying on of the apostles’ hands miraculous powers were bestowed, Simon coveted the power that the apostles had and offered them money for that power. Peter’s response was swift and strong: “20 But Peter said unto him, Thy money perish with thee, because thou hast thought that the gift of God may be purchased with money. 21 Thou hast neither part nor lot in this matter: for thy heart is not right in the sight of God.” vv. 20-21. To correct the situation, Peter did not require Simon to be baptized again. Rather he commanded: “22 Repent therefore of this thy wickedness, and pray God, if perhaps the thought of thine heart may be forgiven thee.” V, 22. There can be no question but that Simon had lost his salvation based upon Peter’s description of his condition: “23 For I perceive that thou art in the gall of bitterness, and in the bond of iniquity.” V. 23. Fortunately, Simon made the correct soul-saving response: “24 Then answered Simon, and said, Pray ye to the Lord for me, that none of these things which ye have spoken come upon me.” V. 24. In his first general epistle, John wrote, “9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. 1 John 1:9.

You are correct that Jesus did not need to be baptized for the remission of sins. That was the purpose of John’s baptism. Luke 3:3. When Jesus came to be baptized of John, John at first refused, saying that he needed to be baptized by Jesus. Matthew 3:13-14. In insisting that John baptize him, Jesus stated the reason for his baptism: “And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfill all righteousness. Then he suffered him.” Matthew 3:15. Being baptized to “fulfill all righteousness” involved at least three things. 1) John was God’s messenger sent to Israel to prepare the way for Jesus. It was God’s will that Jews be baptized of John. Jesus had no sins to remit by baptism, but it would have been sin for him to disobey the command. 2) While Jesus had no sin, Isa. 53:12 tells us, “he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many.” G. Campbell Morgan, in his commentary on Matthew 3:15 wrote, “There, in baptism as in incarnation and birth, and finally and for consummation, in the mystery of His Passion, we see the King identifying Himself with the people over whom He is to reign, in the fact of their deepest need, and direst failure.” 3) God was pleased with Jesus’ obedience: “And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” Matthew 3:16-17.